4/26/2024


Correct Answers 0
Total Questions 100
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Course # 141001
Financial Numbers Game
based on the book:

The Financial Numbers Game: Detecting Creative Accounting Practices
by: Charles W. Mulford & Eugene E. Comiskey ( 2002 )

20 CPE Credit Hours
Auditing

A P E X C P E . C O M  . . . . .  1.877.317.9047  . . . . .  support@apexcpe.com


Chapter 1 - Financial Numbers Game

1.    Income smoothing is a form of earnings management designed to remove peaks and valleys from a normal earnings series, including steps to reduce and "store" profits during good years for use during slower years.   
TRUE
FALSE
2.    The "Financial Numbers Game" can also be labeled as:   
Aggressive accounting
Earnings management
Fraudulent financial reporting
All of the above
3.    A forceful and intentional choice and application of accounting principles done in an effort to achieve desired results, typically in the form of higher current earnings is called:   
Aggressive accounting
GAAP
Financial accounting
Income smoothing
4.    A "Big Bath" is a write down of assets and accrual of liabilities in an effort to make the balance sheet particularly conservative.   
TRUE
FALSE
5.    Increased profit-based bonuses is one reward for playing the financial numbers game.   
TRUE
FALSE
6.    The following is (are) a potential reward for playing the financial numbers game:   
Tax avoidance
Lower borrowing costs
Higher share price
All of the above
7.    Markets can be very unforgiving when news of accounting gimmickry becomes widely known.   
TRUE
FALSE
8.    A company's ability to generate a sustainable, and likely growing, stream of earnings that provide cash flow is known as it's:   
Generation capability
Cash flow
Earnings power
Capitalization
9.    Loan covenants expressing minimum and maximum financial measures that must be met by the borrower are known as:   
Negative loan covenants
Positive load covenants
Neutral loan covenants
Expressive loan covenants


Chapter 2 - How the Game is Played

10.    LIFO vs. FIFO is a good example of the flexibility in GAAP.   
TRUE
FALSE
11.    Reporting flexibility should be removed from Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP).   
TRUE
FALSE
12.    The General Accounting Standards Board (GASB) is the primary body for establishing accounting principles that guide accounting practice in the United States.   
TRUE
FALSE
13.    Today, at a minimum, software companies must have shipped their software products before recognizing revenue.   
TRUE
FALSE
14.    To a significant extent, financial statements are a collection of estimates.   
TRUE
FALSE
15.    According to GAAP, charges for corporate restructuring should be recognized in the year in which they are incurred. Any anticipated charges should not be recognized until they are actually incurred.   
TRUE
FALSE
16.    Misstatements that render prior year financial statements to be in error are handled with restatements of those prior year financial statements.   
TRUE
FALSE
17.    Fraudulent financial reporting is used to describe aggressive accounting practices only after a regulatory body or court alleges fraudulent intent in an administrative, civil or criminal hearing.   
TRUE
FALSE
18.    An overly aggressive accrual of operating expenses and the creation of liability accounts done in an effort to reduce future year operating expenses is known as:   
Stockpiling
Honey reserves
Nest egging
Cookie jar reserves
19.    FIFO assumes the cost of goods sold is comprised of older goods, first purchased or manufactured by the firm.   
TRUE
FALSE
20.    The excess of the purchase price paid for an acquired firm in excess of the fair market value of the acquired firm's identifiable assets is known as:   
Excess assets
Cookie jar reserves
Amortizable premium
Goodwill


Chapter 3 - Earnings Management: A Closer Look

21.    Earnings management often must have a stealth quality to be effective.   
TRUE
FALSE
22.    Changing depreciation methods is a potential earnings management technique.   
TRUE
FALSE
23.    The following is (are) potential earnings management techniques:   
Estimating environmental obligation accruals
Changing estimates of salvage value used for depreciation purposes
Estimating write-downs required for certain investments
All of the above
24.    AAER's are Accounting and Auditing Enforcement Releases issued by the SEC that entail accounting or audit related violations.   
TRUE
FALSE
25.    The market value of shares outstanding as well as the book value of current and noncurrent long-term debt is known as:   
Market capitalization
Net market value
Fair market value
Market realization
26.    The recognition of premature or fictitious revenue represents the most common form of abusive earnings management in cases cited by the SEC in its AAERs.   
TRUE
FALSE
27.    Scanter is a mental state in which no deception is implied.   
TRUE
FALSE
28.    The desire to avoid declining stock prices is an incentive to employ earnings management techniques.   
TRUE
FALSE
29.    Operating earnings refers to earnings after the removal of the effects of nonrecurring or nonoperating items.   
TRUE
FALSE


Chapter 4 - The SEC Responds

30.    Enhancing outside auditing should have a significant effect on the public's confidence in financial reporting.   
TRUE
FALSE
31.    Revenue recognition was identified by the chairman of the SEC as an objectionable creative accounting practice.   
TRUE
FALSE
32.    The SEC Chairman's nine point action plan was designed to return this to financial reporting in the US:   
Trust
Anonymity
Reliability and transparency
Professionalism and honesty
33.    Some market participants believe the SEC has gone too far and has involved itself too greatly in accounting minutiae.   
TRUE
FALSE
34.    Strengthening the audit committee process should have no effect on the public's confidence in financial reporting.   
TRUE
FALSE
35.    Collectively, the Securities Act of 1933 and the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 provide for:   
Registration of issuers of securities
Standardized disclosure of financial and other information
Oversight and compliance enforcement
All of the above
36.    The SEC's Division of Enforcement is responsible for investigating potential violations of the Securities Acts.   
TRUE
FALSE
37.    What term describes a financial statement items effect on a company's overall financial condition and operations.   
Scalability
Gross Negligence
Materiality
Vulnerability
38.    Financial reports are considered to be fraudulent when they violate:   
GAAP
The antifraud provisions of the Securities Acts
State and local law
All of the above
39.    The largest listing section of NASDAQ which has more stringent listing requirements is known as:   
The national market system
The international market system
The prime market
The NASDAQ 100


Chapter 5 - Financial Professional Speak Out

40.    An example of an earnings management revenue recognition technique is:   
Premature booking of revenue
Keeping year end open through the first few days of the following year
Bill and hold sales
All of the above
41.    Trend analysis is ineffective in detecting earnings management.   
TRUE
FALSE
42.    Days statistics is a technique used to detect earnings management.   
TRUE
FALSE
43.    Earnings management is viewed as more likely to be harmful than helpful.   
TRUE
FALSE
44.    Channel stuffing involves the shipments of products to distributors who are encouraged to overbuy under the short term offer of deep discounts.   
TRUE
FALSE
45.    An absolute right of return means that goods may be returned to the seller by the purchaser without restrictions.   
TRUE
FALSE
46.    Reducing LIFO inventory quantities and, as a result, including older and lower costs in the computation of cost of sales (resulting in an increase of revenue) is know as:   
FIFO dipping
LIFO management
LIFO dipping
None of the above
47.    A consignee is defined as a party to whom goods are shipped under a consignment agreement from a consignor.   
TRUE
FALSE
48.    A field representative is a company employee who negotiates sales transactions on behalf of their employer.   
TRUE
FALSE


Chapter 6 - Recognizing Premature or Fictitious Revenue

49.    Fictitious revenue reporting entails:   
Recognizing revenue for a legitimate sale in a period prior to that called for by GAAP
Recording of revenue for a nonexistent sale
Recognizing revenue for a legitimate sale in a period later than that called for by GAAP
All of the above
50.    Premature revenue is revenue that is recognized for a legitimate sales in a period prior to that accepted by GAAP.   
TRUE
FALSE
51.    Revenue recognized for goods ordered by not shipped is an example of:   
Fictitious revenue recognition
Pre GAAP revenue recognition
Premature revenue recognition
None of the above
52.    Revenue recognized for products shipped without an actual order from a customer is likely to be considered fictitious revenue.   
TRUE
FALSE
53.    In its most elemental form, revenue should be recognized:   
When it is earned
When it is realized
As determined by the auditors
When it is earned and realized or realizable
54.    There is no relationship between revenue and accounts receivable.   
TRUE
FALSE
55.    Revenue should not be recognized for bill and hold transactions arranged at the request of the seller.   
TRUE
FALSE
56.    Side letters are often used to negate the terms of a sale.   
TRUE
FALSE
57.    FOB destination means title passes when the goods reach their destination.   
TRUE
FALSE
58.    Service fees can be recognized before the related services are performed.   
TRUE
FALSE
59.    A related party is defined as:   
A cousin
A subsidiary of a parent corporation
An entity whose management or operating policies can be controlled or significantly influenced by another party
None of the above


Chapter 7 - Aggressive Capitalization and Extended Amortization Policies

60.    Extended amortization periods carry beyond an asset's economic useful life.   
TRUE
FALSE
61.    The financial numbers game includes aggressive cost capitalization and extended amortization policies.   
TRUE
FALSE
62.    Restructuring charges can be taken only when pursuant to an officially approved plan.   
TRUE
FALSE
63.    In detecting extended amortization policies, one should be particularly alert if:   
The company's industry is experiencing price deflation
The company is in an industry that is experiencing rapid technological change
The company has shown evidence in the past of employing extended amortization periods
All of the above
64.    Extended amortization periods are equal or less than an asset's economic useful life.   
TRUE
FALSE
65.    In detecting aggressive capitalization policies, one should:   
Carefully consider a company's capitalization policies
Evaluate what capitalized costs represent
Look for evidence of aggressive capitalization policies in the past
All of the above
66.    An accounting principle that ties expense recognition to revenue recognition is known as:   
Materiality
Matching
Timing
None of the above
67.    In software design, a detailed step by step plan for completing the software is known as a "Detailed Program Design".   
TRUE
FALSE


Chapter 8 - Misreported Assets and Liabilities

68.    Inventory may be misreported through an overstatement of a physical count.   
TRUE
FALSE
69.    The comparison of the percentage rate of change in accounts receivable to the percentage rate of change in revenue may help to detect overvalued assets.   
TRUE
FALSE
70.    Companies that use LIFO run a greater risk that inventory costs may exceed replacement costs.   
TRUE
FALSE
71.    Accounts receivable may be overstated due to:   
The recognition of premature revenue
The recognition of fictitious revenue
An improper assessment of future collectibility
All of the above
72.    Misreported assets and liabilities also result in a misstatement of net income and shareholders' equity.   
TRUE
FALSE
73.    An understatement of accounts payable typically is tied to an understatement of inventory purchases and cost of goods sold.   
TRUE
FALSE
74.    FIFO liquidations may boost reported results temporarily by charging to cost of goods sold older, lower cost purchases.   
TRUE
FALSE
75.    A contingent liability is an obligation that is dependent on the occurrence or nonoccurence of one or more future events to confirm the existence of an obligation, the amount owed, the payee, or the date payable.   
TRUE
FALSE
76.    Gross profit margin is revenue less cost of goods sold.   
TRUE
FALSE


Chapter 9 - Getting Creative with the income Statement: Classification and Disclosure

77.    Triple step is an income statement design.   
TRUE
FALSE
78.    Errors or misstatements may remain uncorrected if materiality standards are not applied properly.   
TRUE
FALSE
79.    A discontinued operation involves the disposition of a business segment.   
TRUE
FALSE
80.    A business segment has the following characteristic(s):   
It engages in business activities from which it may earn revenues and incur expenses
It's operating results are regularly reviewed by the enterprise's chief operating decision maker to make decisions about resources to be allocated to the segment and assess its performance
Discrete financial information is available
All of the above
81.    Items termed other comprehensive income is a fairly recent additions to the measurement of income.   
TRUE
FALSE
82.    Companies may use terminology such as "restructuring" for items in the income statement to put a good spin on an otherwise bad item.   
TRUE
FALSE
83.    A change in reporting entity refers to a change in outside auditors.   
TRUE
FALSE
84.    Transparency is the full and fair disclosure of all material items that have implications for the analysis of both earnings and financial position.   
TRUE
FALSE


Chapter 10 - Getting Creative with the Income Statement: Pro-Forma Measures of Earnings

85.    The income statement is the premier playground of those who engage in the financial numbers game.   
TRUE
FALSE
86.    EBBS refers to earnings before the bad stuff   
TRUE
FALSE
87.    EBITA is earnings before interest, taxes, and allocations.   
TRUE
FALSE
88.    Pro-forma measures of financial performance are developed by removing selected cash revenues, gains, expenses, and losses from GAAP net income.   
TRUE
FALSE
89.    Selected adjustments to the bottom line can provide a measure of earnings that is a better indicator of sustainable financial performance.   
TRUE
FALSE
90.    Core earnings is a measurement of earnings that includes only the results of the primary operating activities of the firm.   
TRUE
FALSE


Chapter 11 - Problems with Cash Flow Reporting

91.    A useful ratio in the detection of creative accounting practices is the adjusted cash flow to income ratio.   
TRUE
FALSE
92.    A complete examination for creative accounting practices requires a careful study of a company's cash-generating ability.   
TRUE
FALSE
93.    The direct method format of the cash flow statement is used more frequently than the indirect format method.   
TRUE
FALSE
94.    Cash flow from investing activities includes:   
Purchases and sales of property, plant, and equipment
Purchases and sales of investments
Purchases and sales of other assets
All of the above
95.    Cash used in the payment of dividends is included with investing activities.   
TRUE
FALSE
96.    Cash equivalents are highly liquid, fixed income investments with original maturities of three months or more.   
TRUE
FALSE
97.    Factoring is defined as the discounting , or sale at a discount, of receivables on a nonrecourse, notification basis.   
TRUE
FALSE
98.    To enhance its effectiveness in the detection of creative accounting practices, operating cash flow should be adjusted for nonrecurring cash inflow and outflow.   
TRUE
FALSE
99.    Securitization is the pooling and repackaging of similar items into marketable securities that can be sold to investors.   
TRUE
FALSE
100.    Working capital is current assets minus current liabilities.   
TRUE
FALSE

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